SSC Exams — Syllabus

Timeline

Selection process

1. Tier-I · CBE100 questions, 200 marks, 1 hour · screening only; separate cut-offs for JSO/SI Gr-II, for AAO/AAO and for all other posts
2. Tier-II · Paper-I (all candidates)Maths, reasoning, English and GA count for merit · Computer Knowledge Test and DEST are qualifying only, with higher standards for some posts
3. Tier-II · Paper-II / Paper-IIIPaper-II (Statistics) only for JSO and SI Gr-II; Paper-III (Finance & Economics) only for AAO/AAO · counts for merit for those posts
4. Option form, FRTA and slidingYou fill in post preferences online; allocation is by Tier-II merit and preference; you attend identity verification at the regional office and choose Fix or Float
5. Final result and document verificationUser departments check documents; posts like Inspector (CBIC/CBN), SI (CBI/NIA/NCB) also carry physical and medical standards, checked after selection

Exam pattern

What changed recently: in CGLE 2026 each Tier-I section has its own 15-minute timer and you can no longer move between sections; the two Tier-II Paper-I sections now also have internal timers; and Paper-III (Finance & Economics) is back because the Level 8 AAO/AAO posts are in this cycle (CGLE 2025 had no Level 8 posts and no Paper-III).

Tier-I

Negative marking: 0.50 per wrong answer · Minimum qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% · Level: Quantitative Aptitude at Class 10 level, the rest at graduation level · Language: English and Hindi (except English) · Scores: normalised across shifts

Tier-II · Paper-I (compulsory, one day, two sessions)

Negative marking: 1 mark per wrong answer in Sections I–III (each question is worth 3) · You must qualify every section · DEST: about 2,000 key depressions in 15 minutes; allowed errors UR 20%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 30%; higher standards for posts that need them (Tax Assistant, CSS/MEA/AFHQ ASO, CBIC Inspectors, Postal Assistant and others) · Level: maths at Class 10 level, English at Class 12 level

Tier-II · Paper-II and Paper-III (only for the posts named)

Negative marking: 0.50 per wrong answer · Merit: JSO/SI Gr-II = Paper-I Sections I + II + Paper-II; AAO/AAO = Paper-I Sections I + II + Paper-III; all other posts = Paper-I Sections I + II only · Level: graduation

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Tier-I is now four locked 15-minute sections: practise sectional mocks with a strict timer so that one slow section does not cost you the others. Tier-I only shortlists, so aim to clear the cut-off comfortably rather than chase a perfect score.
• Maths decides most ranks: work through the Quantitative Aptitude notes on this site, then add geometry, trigonometry and mensuration (big in SSC and not covered by bank syllabi), and do the Calculation Practice page daily for speed.
• Tier-II English carries 135 of the 390 merit marks: use the Verbal Ability notes and read one editorial a day for the comprehension passages; revise idioms, one-word substitutions and spellings from a fixed list.
• For reasoning, use the Logical Reasoning notes, and practise non-verbal items (paper folding, embedded figures, mirror images) that bank exams do not test.
• Tier-II negative marking is a full mark on 3-mark questions: attempt only what you are fairly sure of, and track your accuracy in every mock.
• Do not ignore the qualifying parts: practise DEST typing for 15 minutes a few times a week and revise the computer basics list; failing either removes you whatever your other scores.
• If you want JSO/SI Gr-II or AAO, prepare Statistics or Paper-III from the start, because those papers also count for merit for those posts.
• Fill the option form carefully: allocation follows your preferences strictly, and posts with physical standards (CBIC Inspectors, SI in CBI/NIA/NCB) reject you if you cannot meet them.

Timeline

Selection process

1. Paper-I · CBE100 questions, 100 marks, 1 hour · screening for PST/PET; cut-offs can be fixed for each part
2. PST / PETHeight, chest and running/jumping events, run by the CAPFs · qualifying only; ex-servicemen take PST but not PET
3. Paper-II · CBE160 questions, 320 marks, 2 hours · final merit and force allocation are based on Paper-II (plus NCC bonus)
4. Detailed medical examinationVision, knock knee, flat foot, varicose veins, squint and colour vision are checked · qualifying; a review medical is held the next day if you are declared unfit
5. Document verification and allocationBy merit and your preference of force/post; Delhi Police men must show a valid LMV licence

Exam pattern

What changed recently: the 2026 notice halves Paper-I to 100 questions in 1 hour (it was 200 questions, 200 marks, 2 hours in 2025), turns Paper-II from an English-only paper (200 questions, 200 marks) into four parts including reasoning, GK and maths, raises the Paper-II penalty to 0.50, and adds the SI (Fire) post in CISF.

Paper-I

Negative marking: 0.25 per wrong answer · Minimum qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% (before NCC bonus) · Language: English and Hindi (except English) · Scores: normalised across shifts

Paper-II

Negative marking: 0.50 per wrong answer · Difficulty: higher than Paper-I (as the notice says) · Minimum qualifying marks: as for Paper-I · Merit: Paper-II only

Physical Standard Test (PST)

Weight: in proportion to height · Relaxations: only with a certificate in the notice's format from the district authority · Appeal: you can appeal a height/chest failure on the spot to the appellate authority

Physical Endurance Test (PET)

Nature: qualifying, no marks · Medical standard: distant vision 6/6 and 6/9 without glasses or surgery, near vision N6/N9; no knock knee, flat foot, varicose veins or squint; high colour vision · Training: selected SIs must pass seven obstacle events (vertical board, rope, Tarzan swing and others) · Tattoos: only small religious symbols/names on the left forearm or back of the hand

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Paper-II English is 200 of the 320 merit marks, so English decides selection: use the Verbal Ability notes on this site and do a timed set of 25–30 grammar and vocabulary questions every day.
• Paper-I is now only 15 minutes per part: build speed with sectional mocks and daily drills on the Calculation Practice page and the Tables & Speed Tricks notes.
• Cover SSC-style maths (geometry, trigonometry, mensuration) from the Quantitative Aptitude notes, and the reasoning topics from the Logical Reasoning notes.
• Start physical training now, not after the Paper-I result: the 1.6 km run in 6.5 minutes (men) and 800 m in 4 minutes (women) eliminate the most people. Train three to four days a week, and practise long jump and high jump technique.
• Check your height, chest and eyesight early; vision is tested without glasses, and flat foot or knock knee lead to rejection at the medical.
• Delhi Police aspirants (men): get the LMV licence for both motorcycle and car before the PE&MT date.
• If you are in the 2025 cycle, keep revising English and the new Paper-II topics while waiting for the PET result and the Paper-II date.

Timeline

Selection process

1. Paper-I · CBE200 questions, 200 marks, 2 hours · qualifying only; separate shortlists for JE (Civil), JE (Electrical & Mechanical), IMD Scientific Assistant and JE (Telecom)
2. Paper-II · CBE100 questions, 300 marks, 2 hours on your branch · final merit is Paper-II only
3. Option form, FRTA and slidingPost/department allotted by Paper-II merit and your preferences; identity verification at the regional office
4. Document verificationBy the department after the final result: all semester mark sheets, degree/diploma and experience certificates where needed

Eligibility by department (2026 notice)

Cross-eligibility: JE (Mechanical) applicants are also considered for JE (E&M); JE (Electrical) for JE (E&M) and JE (Telecom) if qualified · Experience must be gained after the qualifying degree/diploma; internships do not count · Engineering degrees through distance/online mode are not accepted (except IGNOU B.Tech for students enrolled up to 2009-10)

Exam pattern

What changed recently: from 2026, Paper-I is qualifying only and the final merit uses Paper-II alone (in 2025 both papers counted); the exam was renamed "Junior Engineer Examination" and now also recruits JE (Telecom) in DoT and Scientific Assistant in IMD (Parts D–G).

Paper-I

Negative marking: 0.25 per wrong answer · Minimum qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% · Nature: qualifying (shortlist for Paper-II) · Level: engineering questions at diploma level for Civil/Electrical/Mechanical · Language: English and Hindi

Paper-II

Negative marking: 1 mark per wrong answer (each question is worth 3) · Merit: Paper-II normalised score only · Normalisation: across shifts, and between the Electrical and Mechanical papers · On screen: IS 456:2000 table, steam table and a scientific calculator; no physical calculator or tables allowed

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Paper-II alone now decides your rank, so spend most of your time on your branch: finish the diploma-level theory for every Paper-II topic first, then solve previous SSC JE papers topic-wise.
• Paper-II deducts a full mark on 3-mark questions: attempt only what you are fairly sure of, and track accuracy in each mock.
• Paper-I only has to be cleared, but 100 marks are non-technical: use the Logical Reasoning notes on this site for reasoning and a short daily current-affairs habit for general awareness.
• Practise numericals with the on-screen scientific calculator and the IS 456 / steam tables, since you cannot bring your own.
• Civil: give extra time to RCC, steel, soil mechanics, surveying and estimating. Electrical: machines, measurement and power systems. Mechanical: thermal, SOM, TOM and manufacturing; these give the most questions.
• Check the department table before filling preferences: some posts need a degree or diploma plus experience, and the age limit is 32 only for CPWD and Lighthouses.

Timeline

Selection process

1. Tier-I · CBE100 questions, 200 marks, 60 minutes · qualifying only: it shortlists candidates for Tier-II, with separate cut-offs for LDC/JSA and the two DEO groups
2. Tier-II · Session ISection I (Maths + Reasoning) and Section II (English + General Awareness) count for merit. Section III, the computer knowledge test, is qualifying
3. Tier-II · Session IITyping test (LDC/JSA) or data-entry skill test (DEO) on the same day · qualifying only
4. Preferences and allocationPost preferences are taken online. The FRTA follows, based only on Tier-II Section I + II marks. Candidates then attend identity verification in person and choose "fix" or "float"
5. Final result and document verificationDocument verification is done by the user department after the final result

Exam pattern

Tier-I · CBE (qualifying)

Negative marking: 0.50 mark per wrong answer · Minimum qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% · Scores: normalised when the exam runs in several shifts · Language: English and Hindi, plus the regional language chosen in the application form (for all parts except English) · Scribe candidates: 80 min

What changed recently: the 2026 notice adds a sectional timer (15 minutes per part in Tier-I; 30 + 30 minutes in Tier-II Section I; 40 + 20 minutes in Section II). In 2025 you could move freely within each 60-minute block. From 2026, candidates typing in Hindi must use the Mangal font or they fail the test. PA/SA posts have been dropped from CHSL.

Tier-II · Session I (merit + qualifying)

Marking: 3 marks per question · Negative marking: 1 mark per wrong answer in Sections I, II and III · Qualifying: you must clear every section (30% UR, 25% OBC/EWS, 20% others). In CHSLE 2025 the computer test cut-off was 13.5/45 for UR and 9–11.25 for the other categories · Language: English and Hindi, plus a regional language, except the English module

Tier-II · Session II: skill test / typing test (qualifying, same day)

Evaluation: accuracy on a set passage; errors are worked out to 2 decimal places. In CHSLE 2025 the typing test allowed 7% mistakes for UR and 10% for other categories · Hindi: Mangal font is mandatory · Exemption: PwBD candidates who are medically certified as unable to type (not VH/HH) are exempt from the typing test only; the DEO skill test is compulsory for everyone · Scribe candidates: +5 min

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Tier-I only shortlists you, but from 2026 each part has its own 15-minute timer, so you can no longer carry spare time from GA into Maths. Practise each part as a separate 15-minute timed block.
• Tier-II alone decides your rank, and each wrong answer costs 1 of the 3 marks. Aim for accuracy: skip questions you are unsure of, especially in Maths and English.
• Build arithmetic, algebra, geometry and trigonometry from the Quantitative Aptitude notes. Drill squares, cubes, fractions and percentages on the Calculation Practice page and the Tables & Speed Tricks notes so 30 Maths questions fit in 30 minutes.
• For reasoning, use the Logical Reasoning notes. SSC reasoning is mostly analogy, classification, series, coding, and figure-based questions (paper folding, embedded and mirror figures), so practise figure questions from previous papers.
• English has the biggest weight in Tier-II (120 marks). Work through grammar rules, idioms and one-word substitutions with the Verbal Ability notes, and read one editorial a day for the comprehension passage.
• General Awareness: revise static GK (history, polity, geography, science) and keep 6 months of current affairs. Previous SSC papers repeat facts often.
• Start typing practice early: 35 wpm in English (or 30 in Hindi, in Mangal font) with under 7% errors for UR. The typing test is on the same day as Tier-II, so do not leave it for later.
• Revise basic computer knowledge (MS Office, shortcuts, networking, security) once a week. The test is only 15 questions, but you must clear it.

Timeline

Selection process

1. Computer-based exam200 marks, 2 hours, with a timer for each part · decides merit. Minimum marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20%
2. Skill test in stenography10 minutes of dictation (Grade C 100 wpm, Grade D 80 wpm) in English or Hindi, transcribed on a computer · mandatory but qualifying; SSC sets category-wise standards
3. Preferences, FRTA and slidingPost preferences are taken online. The allocation (FRTA) uses CBE merit among those who pass the skill test. You then attend identity verification in person and choose "fix" or "float"
4. Final result and document verificationDocument and medical checks are done by the user department; BRO has extra physical standards

Exam pattern

Computer-based exam

Negative marking: 0.25 mark per wrong answer · Minimum qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% · Scores: normalised across shifts · Language: English and Hindi (objective MCQ) · Scribe candidates: 2 h 40 min (40/40/80 min)

What changed recently: the 2026 notice adds a timer for each part (30 + 30 + 60 minutes). In 2025 the 2 hours were one block. An addendum dated 23.09.2026 makes the Mangal font mandatory for skill tests in Hindi; transcripts typed in any other font will not be evaluated.

Skill test in stenography (qualifying)

Medium: English or Hindi, as chosen in the application form. If you take the test in Hindi you must learn English stenography after appointment, and vice versa, or your probation may not be cleared · Transcription: typed on a computer at SSC regional offices or chosen centres · Evaluation: SSC's standard skill-test instructions (under "For Candidates" on ssc.gov.in) with category-wise error limits · Hindi: Mangal font only

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• English is 100 of the 200 marks and the first tie-breaker, so give it about half your study time. Use the Verbal Ability notes for grammar and vocabulary and practise 100-question sets in 60 minutes.
• With separate timers from 2026, you cannot borrow time between parts. Practise reasoning and GA as 30-minute blocks of 50 questions (about 36 seconds per question).
• For reasoning, work through analogies, series, coding and figure questions from the Logical Reasoning notes. Number-series and arithmetical-reasoning questions get faster with the Calculation Practice page and the Tables & Speed Tricks notes.
• GA is 50 marks with only 0.25 negative marking: revise static GK (history, polity, geography, science) and 6 months of current affairs, and attempt the questions you are fairly sure of.
• Start shorthand months before the CBE. Build dictation speed step by step (60, 80, then 100 wpm) with 10-minute passages, and transcribe every passage on a computer against the clock (40–50 minutes in English).
• If you take the test in Hindi, practise transcribing in Mangal font now. Transcripts in any other font will not be evaluated in the 2026 skill test.
• Apply for both grades if you are eligible: Grade D has far more posts (1,129 vs 146 in 2026) and a lower dictation speed.

Timeline

Selection process

1. CBE · Session IMaths and reasoning, 45 min, no negative marking · qualifying only (UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20%). Session II is marked only if you clear Session I.
2. CBE · Session IIGeneral awareness and English, 45 min, minus 1 for each wrong answer · the same minimum marks apply · merit is based only on your normalised Session II score
3. PET/PST (Havaldar only)Walk test and measurements, conducted by CBIC/CBN · qualifying · shortlist is about 7 times the vacancies. If you fail it you are still considered for MTS on your CBE merit.
4. Allocation and document verificationOne select list for all posts, based on Session II merit, your age group, and your order of post-cum-State/UT preferences. Documents are checked by the department you are allotted to.

Exam pattern

Computer-based exam (one sitting, two sessions)

Negative marking: none in Session I; minus 1 mark per wrong answer in Session II · Qualifying marks: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20%, in each session · Merit: normalised Session II score only, with separate cut-offs by category, State/UT and age group · Tie-break: General Awareness marks, then Session I marks, then the older candidate · Language: Hindi, English and 13 regional languages (English paper in English)

What changed recently: the two-session pattern has been used since 2023 and the 2025 notice did not change it. The 2025 CBE ran about four months later than the date in its notice, and scribe registration now requires Aadhaar authentication.

Havaldar PET/PST (CBIC & CBN)

Relaxation: Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas and ST candidates get 5 cm less height for men, and 2.5 cm less height and 2 kg less weight for women · candidates with some PwBD categories (OL, OAL, LC) may be exempted from the walk

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Session II decides your rank and has negative marking, so give most of your time to General Awareness and English. Aim for accuracy rather than attempting every question.
• Build Class 6–10 NCERT-level history, geography, polity and science into short revision notes. GA carries 75 marks and is the main tie-breaker.
• Use the Verbal Ability notes for grammar rules, synonyms, antonyms and idioms, and do one short comprehension passage every day.
• Session I only needs to be cleared, but it is 120 marks of basic maths and reasoning. The Quantitative Aptitude notes and a daily set on the Calculation Practice page make it easy to clear.
• Learn squares, cubes, tables and fraction-to-percent values from the Tables & Speed Tricks notes. Session I gives you only about 2 minutes per question.
• For Havaldar, start brisk-walk practice early (1.6 km in under 15 minutes for men, 1 km in under 20 for women) and check your height and chest against the table.
• Fill in post-cum-State preferences carefully and give many of them. Allocation depends only on the preferences you list, and cut-offs differ a lot between states.

Timeline

Previous cycle for reference (GD 2025): CBE 4–25 Feb 2025 · CBE result 17 Jun 2025 · PET/PST 20 Aug – 15 Sep 2025 · PET/PST result 13 Oct 2025 · DV/DME from 12 Nov 2025 · final result 15 Jan 2026, with 53,690 vacancies allocated

Selection process

1. Computer-based exam80 questions, 160 marks, 60 min · minimum marks UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% (NCC bonus not counted for this) · about 8 candidates per vacancy are shortlisted, State/UT-wise and category-wise
2. PET and PSTRace, then height, chest and weight measurement, run by the CAPFs · qualifying only · ex-servicemen are exempt from the race
3. Detailed medical exam and document verificationAbout 2 candidates per vacancy, from those who clear PET/PST · MHA uniform medical guidelines · you can ask for a review medical exam if declared unfit
4. Final merit and force allocationNormalised CBE marks plus NCC bonus, separately for men and women in each State/UT and for border and militancy/Naxal-affected districts · force is allotted by merit and your order of preference among all 7 forces

Exam pattern

Computer-based exam

Negative marking: 0.25 marks per wrong answer · Level: Class 10 · NCC bonus: 5% of max marks for the C certificate, 3% for B, 2% for A · Scores: normalised across shifts · Language: English, Hindi and 13 regional languages · no calculators

What changed recently: the 2026 notice's vacancy table covers only BSF, CISF, CRPF, SSB, ITBP, Assam Rifles and SSF, with no NIA or NCB Sepoy posts. The 2026 CBE also let candidates rank their preferred exam weeks, and there is a separate, easier race standard for candidates from the Ladakh region.

Physical standards and race (PST/PET)

Relaxed height and chest (with certificate)

Appeals: an appeal against a height or chest measurement can be made the same day; there is no appeal for the race · Pregnancy: a pregnant woman is declared temporarily unfit and re-tested six weeks after delivery

Medical exam (DME)

Conducted by CAPF medical boards under the MHA Uniform Guidelines for recruitment medical exams (2015, amended 2021). Commonly quoted standards: distant vision 6/6 in the better eye and 6/9 in the worse eye, near vision N6/N9, all without glasses; no colour blindness. Knock-knee, flat foot, varicose veins, squint and similar conditions can make you unfit (mild, flexible cases may pass). You can ask for a review medical exam (RME) if found unfit.

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Start running now rather than after the result. PET/PST usually comes 2–3 months after the CBE result, and 5 km in 24 minutes needs steady weekly training.
• Measure your height and chest early and check whether your category or region gets a relaxation. Get the certificate (Annexure-IX format) ready before PET.
• The CBE is 80 questions in 60 minutes with no sectional timer. Do reasoning and GK quickly, then give the rest of the time to maths and English.
• Maths is Class 10 arithmetic: the Quantitative Aptitude notes, the Tables & Speed Tricks notes and daily sets on the Calculation Practice page cover it.
• Reasoning is mostly non-verbal figure questions. Practise series, analogies and mirror images from the Logical Reasoning notes every day.
• Choose English or Hindi for Part D, whichever you are stronger in. For English, use the Verbal Ability notes for vocabulary and error spotting.
• Selection is State/UT-wise and category-wise. Look at your own state's past cut-offs, and keep your domicile, caste and NCC certificates in order for DME/DV.

Timeline

Selection process

1. Computer-based examOne paper for each qualification level you applied at. If you applied for posts at two levels you sit two papers, but only once per level; that score is used for all your posts at that level in every region.
2. Shortlist for scrutinyMinimum UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, others 20% · per post: 30 candidates per vacancy if the post has up to 5 vacancies, otherwise 15 per vacancy (at least 150). All qualifying PwBD and ESM candidates are shortlisted for their reserved vacancies.
3. Document upload and scrutinyYou upload self-attested documents on the SSC portal. The department checks them and publishes tentative, then final, acceptance and rejection lists through the Regional Office.
4. Skill test (only if the post requires one)Typing, data entry, computer proficiency or trade test · qualifying
5. Document verification and final resultDV by the department · merit is based on normalised CBE marks, post by post

Exam pattern

Computer-based exam (same structure at all three levels, with harder questions at higher levels)

Negative marking: 0.50 marks per wrong answer · Sectional timer: 15 minutes per part, and you cannot go back · Three separate papers: Matriculation level, Higher Secondary (10+2) level, and Graduation & above level · Graduate paper: Parts A, B and D are at graduate level, but maths (Part C) stays at Class 10 level · Scores: normalised across shifts · Language: Hindi and English only, chosen when you apply

How post-wise eligibility works: every post has its own code, department, region, age band, qualification, pay level and skill-test rule (see ssc.gov.in, RHQ Selection Post, Post Details). You apply and pay once per post code. Qualifications and experience are judged as on the closing date, and age as on 01.01.2026. Experience counts only if gained after the qualification. Eligibility is checked only after the CBE, so if a department rejects you at scrutiny you lose that post even with a high score.

What changed recently: from Phase XIII onwards the departments scrutinise documents, hold skill tests and do DV, and publish acceptance and rejection lists (SSC notice of 03.03.2026). Phase XIII also introduced "deemed challenged" questions in the answer key. The CBE has kept the four 15-minute timed parts.

Detailed syllabus

How to prepare

• Before applying, read each post's details carefully: qualification subject, experience, age band and skill test. Most rejections happen at the department's scrutiny after the CBE, not in the exam.
• Apply for several posts at your highest qualification level, and also at lower levels if you are eligible. Each level is a separate paper and a separate chance.
• With 15-minute sectional timers and minus 0.50 per wrong answer, practise full four-part mocks with strict timing and skip questions you are unsure of.
• Maths is arithmetic-heavy at every level. Use the Quantitative Aptitude notes, the Tables & Speed Tricks notes and the Calculation Practice page so that 25 questions fit into 15 minutes.
• For the 10+2 and graduate papers, also revise algebra, geometry and trigonometry basics, which appear as in CHSL and CGL.
• Reasoning at the graduate level includes clerical-style matching (address and date matching, indexing), which is fast and scoring. Practise it with the Logical Reasoning notes.
• Use the Verbal Ability notes for grammar and vocabulary. For posts with a typing or data-entry skill test, start typing practice early (it is qualifying but you must clear it).